the book I’m working on is not called legalese for nothing.  Among other things, there’s an inordinate amount of legalese–and legally related facts–in it.  The research makes my head spin.

So today’s post is a random question.  I’d like to hear your answers.  I’ll answer the question sometime later on this week, but for now, I’d like to hear what you have to say.  This is something that has tripped up a number of romance authors, including some who do meticulous research.

As most of you are aware, before the late 19th century reforms, married women had no legal personality separate from their husbands.  If she owned property when she married–if she made money while married–it belonged to her husband.  Assume we’re in the time period before the reformation of the law.
Could a married woman own separate property?

And now let me rephrase the question:  At law, could a married woman own separate property?
*evil grin*

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